Competitive World

Tag: Defence

  • The Great Plains of India

    In this article, we will discuss The Great Plains of India. So, let’s get started.

    The Great Plains Of India

    The Great Plains of India lies to the south of the Shiwalik separated by the Himalayan Front
    Fault (HFF). It is a transitional zone between the Himalaya of the north and Peninsular India
    of the south. It is an aggradational plain formed by the alluvial deposits of the Indus, Ganga,
    Brahmaputra and their tributaries. The plain stretches for about 2400 km from west to east. It has varying width; 90–100 km in Assam, 160 km near Rajmahal (Jharkhand), 200 km in Bihar, 280 km near Allahabad and 500 km in Punjab. In general, the width of the plain increases from east to west.
    The Great Plains of India consist largely of alluvial deposits brought down by the rivers
    originating in the Himalayan and the Peninsular region. The exact depth of alluvium has not yet
    been fully determined. According to recent estimates, the average depth of alluvium in the
    southern side of the plain (north of Bundelkhand) varies between 1300 to 1400 m, while towards the Shiwaliks, the depth of alluvium increases. The maximum depth of over 8000 m has been reached near Ambala, Yamunanagar, and Jagadhri (Haryana).
    The Great Plains are remarkably homogeneous with little variation in relief features for hundreds of kilometers. The monotony of the physical landscape is broken at micro-level by the
    river bluffs, Bhurs, levees, dead-arms of river channels, the ravines and khols. Changing river
    courses in the areas of frequent floods is a unique geomorphic process in the plains. The frequent floods, although a cause of immense damage to life and property, lay down fresh layer of silts in the flood-plains every year, providing rich fertile soils.

    Origin of the Great Plains of India
    There is no unanimity amongst the geologists about the origin of the Great Plains of India. The puzzling questions are related to the enormous thickness of the alluvium, nature of the depression, mode of its formation, subterranean rock-beds and the underlying geological structure, Some of the important views about the origin of the Nirthern Plains of India have been presented briefly in the following section:

    Alluviation of the Foredeep
    According to Edward Suess, an eminent Austrian geologist, a “foredeep” was formed in front of the high crust-waves of the Himalayaas they were checked in their southward advance by the more rigid landmass of the Peninsula of India. This foredeep was like a large synclinorium (a large syncline with a number of small anticlines and synclines) owing to the unevenness of its bottom. According to Suess, the bed of this foredeep had a gentle slope towards north whereas the Peninsular side depicted a steep gradient. This bed rests on the basement of hard crystalline Peninsular rocks through which the region is connected to the Himalayan and the Peninsular blocks. The alluviation of this foredeep led to the formation of the Great Plains by the rivers, descending from the Himalayan region. One of the serious gaps in Suess’ theoryis related to his inability to give suitable explanation to the uneven slope of the bed of the plain. Moreover, no conclusive evidence is available through which it could be inferred that there exists crustal connection between the Himalayan region and the Peninsular block through the Great Plains.

    Infilling of a Rift Valley
    In the opinion of Sir G. Burrard, the Northern Plains of India are the result of infilling of a rift valley. Burrard opined that during the formation of the Himalaya a nft valley was created between the two parallel faults (one along the southem boundary of the Shiwaliks and the other along the northern boundary of the Peninsula) This rift valley was filled up by the detritus brought down by the Himalayan river. In order to support his argument Burrard has cited examples of the formation of similar rift valleys in the Himalaya and the Peninsular region especially the Narmada and Tapi rift valleys.
    This concept, however, does not find approval of the modern geologists. The main criticism
    raised against this concept is that nowhere in the world has such a giant rift valley with a length
    of 2400 km and a width of over 500 km ever been formed by crustal downwarping. Also there is no geological evidence of the formation of such a rift valley in the northern part of the Peninsular foreland. The uneven bottom and the northward slope of the bottom of the Great Plains of India have also not been explained by this concept.

    Recession of the Sea
    In the opinion of Blandford, during the Eocene Period. Peninsular India was joined together with
    Africa. During that period, there was one sea extending from Assam Valley to the Irrawaddy river (Myanmar) in the east and another from Iran and Baluchistan to Ladakh (Indus Valley) in the west. During the last part of the Eocene Period, arms of the Western Sea extended up to Punjab. Due to the rise of the Himalaya during the Miocene Period, these seas started receding by gradual deposits of sediments from the Himalayan rivers. After a prolonged period of sedimentation and subsidence, these gulfs (Gulf of Sind in the west and the Eastern Gulf up to the Shillong Plateau) were filled up, resulting in the formation of the Northern Plains of India.
    The evidences cited in favour of the recession of the sea include: (i) the occurrence of limestone rocks in Kumaun-Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, (ii) the presence of saline water lakes in Rajasthan (Sambar, Rajsazmand. Pushkar, Pachpadra. Nakki, Fatehsagar Dheberr, Balasmand, etc.),(iii) the joining of the islands of the Gulf of Kachchh with the mainland, (iv) the seaward extension of the Sundarban Delta, (v) the emergence of new islands near Bangladesh coast, and (vi) the presence of marine fossils in the sediments of the Northern Plains of India. The theory, however, fails to give convincing arguments so far as the region of the central portion of the plain is concerned.

    Remnant of the Tethys
    Some of the geologists and geomorphologists opine that the Great Plains of India are a remnant of the Tethys Sea. According to them, after the upheaval of the Shiwaliks, the remaining part of the Tethys was left as a large trough which was joined to the Bay of Bengal in the east and the
    Arabian Sea in the west. Rivers from the Himalaya deposited their load in the trough. Because the Himalaya were rising during that period, rivers experienced rejuvenation and greater quantity of eroded material which increased the thickness of the alluviums. Due to infilling of the central part of the trough the seas located in the east and the west started receding, and the Great Plains of India come into existence.

    Recent Views
    According to the recent views, the Northern Plains of India represent a sag in the crust formed between the northward drifting of the Indian Subcontinent and the comparatively soft sediments accumulated in the Tethyan basin when the latter were crumpled and lifted up into a mountain system. Subsequently, it was filled up by the river deposits.

  • English (Practice Set-13)

    In this article, we will solve English (Practice Set-13). So, let’s get started.

    1. Fill in the blank with it to complete the sentence.
    She let her horse……in the field.
    (a) loosen
    (b) loose
    (C) loosely
    (d) lose
    Directions (Q. Nos. 2-3) Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from crror ‘No error’.
    2. This is turned out to be (a)/one of our most successful projects and we have made quite (b)/large a profit from it (c)/ No error (d)

    3. He has given me (a). lot of documents (b)/ to read before the presentation tomorrow. (c)/ No error (d)

    4. A sentence has been given Direct/Indirect. Select the one
    which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct.
    The teacher said, “The Earth goes round the Sun.”
    (a) The teacher said the Earth went round the Sun.
    (b) The teacher said the Earth goes round the Sun.
    (c) The teacher said that the Earth goes round the Sun.
    (d) The teacher said that the Earth went round the Sun.

    5. Fill in the blank.
    Had you told me carlier, I …….. the metting.
    (a) had attended
    (b) have attended
    (c) attended
    (d) would have attended

    6. Choose the proper sequence.
    (a) By June next year Ajay will be twenty years working in the office
    (b) Till June next year Ajay will work in the office for twenty years.
    (c) Till June next year Ajay will work in the office for twenty years.
    (d) By June next year Ajay will have been working in the office for twenty years.

    7. A part of the sentence is underlined. Choose the correct
    alternative which should be put in place of underlined part.
    she found a wooden broken table in the room.
    (a) wooden and broken table
    (b) broken wooden table
    (c) broken and wooden table
    (d) No improvement

    8. Choose the correct preposition
    Pour the juice…. the glass
    (a) in
    (b) into
    (c) onto
    (d) on

    Directions (Q. Nos. 9-13) Read the passage and answer the following questions,
    Given below is a short passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
    To eat and not be eaten that’s imperative of a caterpillar’s existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in which to feed and rest. Adopting a different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that may foul the mouth-part of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a protable hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young leaves, the minute citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus keeping its appetizing body safely under wraps.

    9. Which varieties of caterpillars ‘build’ shelters to protect themselves?
    (a) Leaf roller and aquatic larva
    (b) Leaf roller and jelly slug
    (c) Jelly slug and aquatic larva
    (d) Jelly slug and citrus leaf miner

    10. Which one of the following caterpillars produces e sticky
    covering?
    (a) Leaf roller
    (b) Jelly slug
    (c) Aquatic larwa
    (d) Citrus leaf miner

    Answer sheet
    1(d) 2(c) 3(b) 4(c) 5(d) 6(d) 7(b) 8(b) 9(a) 10(b)

  • National Security

    In this article, we will discuss National Security (Introduction). So, let’s get started.

    Introduction

    The safety of nation against threats such as terrorism, war or espionage.

    A country’s national security is its ability to protect itself from the threat of violence or attack we must deal with threats to our national security regardless of the cost.

    National security or national defence is the security and defence of a nation, state, including its citizens, economy and institution which is regarded as a duty of government.

    National security is this safe keeping of the nation as a whole it’s highest order of business is the protection of the nation and it’s people from attack and other external dangerous by maintaining armed force guarding state secrets.

    The three pillars of sustainable national security:

    A multi-sum security principle based on justice at all levels multilateralism and multi-dimensional (including human environmental, national, transitional, and transcultural/transcivilization security).

    Symbiotic realism in international relations whereby mutual cooperation among states conflictual absolute gains and

    Transcivilizational synergy which results from mutual respect, multiculturalism, cosmopolitanism, and cross-fertilization and will lead to global justice, security and prosperity. This is essential reading for anyone interested in an innovative approach to the complex yet central subject of sustainable national security.

  • India’s Taliban Challenge (India’s Options)

    In this article, we will discuss India’s Taliban Challenge (India’s Options). So, let’s get started.

    India’s Options

    • Broader Diplomatic Engagement: India should consider appointing a special envoy dedicated to Afghanistan. The envoy can ensure that Indian views are expressed at every meeting, and broaden engagement with the Taliban.
    • Decoupling of Taliban-Pakistan: Although Pakistan’s leverage over the Taliban is real, it may not be absolute.
    • The Taliban is bound to seek a measure of autonomy from Pakistan. India will have to wait a while before the current issues between India and the Taliban can be overcome.
    • Balancing the Opportunities in Afghanistan: Structuring the internal balance of power within Afghanistan has always been hard. A deeper Sino-Pak partnership in Afghanistan will inevitably produce countervailing trends.
    • However, for a patient, open-minded and active India, there will be no dearth of balancing opportunities in Afghanistan.
    • Leverage Indian Infrastructural Developments: Indian USD 3 billion assistance to Afghanistan is in concrete projects that serve its population and have earned it their goodwill that will endure.
    • The need today is to not stop the development work in Afghanistan and continue the good work.
    • Global Cooperation: There is a lot less global acceptance of terrorism today than in it was in the 1990s.
    • No major power would like to see Afghanistan re-emerge as a global sanctuary of terror.
    • The world has also imposed significant new constraints on Pakistan’s support for terror through mechanisms like the Financial Action Task Force.

  • English (Practice Set-12)

    In this article, we will solve English (Practice Set-12). So, let’s get started.

    1. Fill in the blank with it to complete the sentence.
    The date of the function………. not been decided yet.

    • (a) have
    • (b) has
    • (c) was
    • (d) is

    Directions (Q. Nos. 2-3) Find the error and justify your answers and choose ‘No error’ if you find no error.

    2. This is first time (a) /the company has ventured into (b)movie production. (c) No crror (d)

    3. There is no argument against the fact that (a)/ humans are most intelligent (b)/of all species. (c) No error (d)

    4. A sentence has been given Direct/Indirect. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct
    He said, “Gandhi ji faced many awkward situations when he was living in south Africa”.

    • (a) He said that Gandhi ji had faced many awkward situations when he was living in South Africa.
    • (b) He says that Gandhi ji faced many awkward situations when he was living in South Africa.
    • (c) He told that Gandhi ji had faced many awkward situations when he was living to South Africa.
    • (d) He said that Gandhi ji had been facing awkward situations when he was living in South Africa.

    5. Fill in the blank.

    Had he taken his degree five years ago, he …….. got a promotion by now.

    • (a) might
    • (b) would have
    • (c) will be
    • (d) was

    6. Choose the proper sequence.

    • (a) He may be poor now but he appears to have been rich in his youth.
    • (b) He may be poor now but he appears to be rich in his youth
    • (c) He may be poor now but he appears being rich in his youth.
    • (d) He may be poor now but he appears to rich in his youth.

    7. Choose correct option to improve the sentence at place of underlined words.

    Honesty is more superior than riches.

    • (a) No improvement
    • (b) for superior than
    • (c) more superior to
    • (d) superior to

    8. Choose the correct preposition. Leaves …….. in autumn.

    • (a) fall down
    • (b) fall of
    • (c) fall on
    • (d) fall off

    Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12) Read the passage and answer the following questions.Soft skills refer to non-technical, personality. specific skills that are easy to learn and follow compared to technical skills Therefore these skills are called technical skills. Soft skills encompass anything and everything that relates to the functioning of a group. an individual or an organisation in relation to behavior, performance, interaction, team spirit and all related aspects which are non-technical in nature. In today’s competitive world, the only sustainable competitive advantage that cannot be duplicated is the “soft skills”, the quality, drive, enthusiasm and leadership ability of the people of the organisation. To be more precise, soft skill refers to the cluster of personality traits, interpersonal skills, social graces, etiquettes, personal habits, friendliness, leadership skills and optimism that mark each of us to varying degrees. For aspirants seeking job, a variety of basic traits and skills like knowledge, character traits, and interpersonal abilities combined with ethics and attitudes from the key to their ability to get a job to keep it, and to move up in the organisation. For corporates, soft skills are about projecting oneself and one’s professional skills in the best possible way, and taking holistic view of things. They are about how you interact with and react to others when you come into contact with them; they enable you to zero down to the most important point you went to make but in an attractive and charming manner.

    9. Which of the following is not true about soft skills?

    • (a) They are easy to learn.
    • (b) They involve team spirit.
    • (c) They are not non-technical skills.
    • (d) They do not rlate to an individual

    10. What is not included in the cluster of soft skills?

    • (a) Personality traits
    • (b) Social graces
    • (c) Pessimism
    • (d) Ladership skills

    11. What all skills an aspirant seeking a job should possess to build a career?

    • (a) Interpersonal abilities
    • (b) Character traits
    • (c) Knowledge
    • (d) All of these

    12. Select the suitable title for the passage.

    • (a) Soft Skills – A Non-Technical Skill
    • (6) Soft Skills Your Competitive Advantage
    • (c) Soft Skills A Complete Skill
    • (d) Soft Skills The Best Leadership Skill

    Directions (Q. Nos. 13-14) Find the error and justify your answers and choose ‘No error’ if you find no error.
    13. The university has ordered (a)/ an inquiry into the leak and formed an inquiry committee who will have to (b)/submit its primary report within 48 hours. (c) No error (d)

    14. There is a growing demand (a) for a law requiring employers to provide workers with paid leave (b) so as to care for sick children. (c)/ No error (d)

    15. Out of the four alternative, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
    A highly skilled musician

    • (a) Artiste
    • (b) Virtuoso
    • (c) Performer
    • (d) Diva

    16. Choose the most appropriate alternative out of the four. The police man told me that he knew that saint ……. he had been arrested and sent to prison for fifteen years.

    • (a) when
    • (b) while
    • (c) as
    • (d) since

    17. Identify the incorrect spelt word.

    • (a) Beautisian
    • (b) Bilingual
    • (c) Barbarian
    • (d) Balloon

    18. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
    I don’t buy it

    • (a) I don’t believe it
    • (b) I have no money
    • (c) I summarize it
    • (d) I don’t need it

    19. In each of the following question, four word choices have been given. Out of these four words, you have to choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
    Collection of names of books useful for the purpose,

    • (a) Bibiography
    • (b) Synchronize
    • (c) Explicable
    • (d) Dignified

    20. Find the crror and justify your answers and choose “No error’ if you find no error.
    Haven’t you notice (a) that for the past one month he hasn’t been here (b)) at his regular place? (C)/No error (d)

    21. Choose the correct Alternative in the place of underline word/sentence.
    Being a wet day, he stayed at home.

    • (a) Though
    • (b) since
    • (c) As it was
    • (d) No improvement

    Directions (Q. Nos. 22-23) In the following questions, pick up correct antonyms for the given words.

    22. Belittle

    • (a) expand
    • (b) inflate
    • (c) praise
    • (d) extol

    23. Inevitable

    • (a) uncertain
    • (b) ineligible
    • (c) inevident
    • (d) inefficient

    24. Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of where have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence there are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). Your required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the proper sequence.
    On the contrary, in countries like China and the other Paciftc countries, (P)
    permission for shooting but also (Q)
    film-makers not only obtain quick (R)
    get subsidies to undertake the job (S)
    Which one of the following sequences is correct?

    • (a) PRQS
    • (b) QSPR
    • (c) PSQR
    • (d) QRPS

    25. Fill in the blank.
    He will not work ………. he is compelled.

    • (a) till
    • (b) if
    • (c) after
    • (d) unless

    Answer sheet: 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (a) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (d).

  • CBI (Director)

    In this article, we will discuss CBI (Director). So, let’s get started.

    CBI (Director)

    • Director, CBI as Inspector General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is responsible for the administration of the organisation.
    • Till 2014, the CBI Director was appointed on the basis of the DSPE Act, 1946.
    • In 2003, DSPE Act was revised on Supreme Court’s recommendation in the Vineet Narain case. A committee that had members from Central Vigilance Commission, Secretaries from Home Ministry, Ministry of Personnel and Public Grievances would send recommendations to Central Government for the appointment of CBI Director.
    • In 2014, the Lokpal Act provided a committee for appointment of CBI Director:
      • Headed by Prime Minister
      • Other members – Leader of Opposition/ Leader of the single largest opposition party, Chief Justice of India/ a Supreme Court Judge.
      • Home Ministry sends a list of eligible candidates to DoPT. Then, the DoPT prepares the final list on basis of seniority, integrity, and experience in the investigation of anti-corruption cases, and sends it to the committee.
    • Director of CBI has been provided security of two year tenure, by the CVC Act, 2003.

  • Election Commission of India

    In this article, we will discuss the Election Commission of India (General Overview). So, let’s get started.

    • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority
    responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.

    • The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.

    Structure of the Commission

    • Originally the commission had only one election commissioner but after the Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body.
    • The commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election
    Commissioners.
    • The secretariat of the commission is located in New Delhi.
    • At the state level election commission is helped by Chief Electoral Officer who is an IAS rank Officer.
    • The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
    • They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
    • They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
    • The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge for by Parliament.

    Procedure of Removal

    • Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be Removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
    • Removal requires special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting
    supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
    • The Constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, for the removal of the judges, CAG, CEC.
    • The term ‘Impeachment’ is only used for removing the President which requires the
    special majority of 2/3rd members of the total strength of both the houses which is
    not used elsewhere.

  • Functions of Customs Department

    In this article, we will discuss Functions of Customs Department. So, let’s get started.

    Functions

    Indian Customs handle various tasks, important among them are as follows –

    • Collection of Customs duties on imports and exports as per basic customs laws.
    • Enforcement of various provisions of Customs Act governing imports and
    exports of cargo, baggage, postal articles and arrival and departure of vessel, aircrafts etc.
    • Discharge of various agency functions and enforcing various prohibitions and
    restrictions on imports and exports under Customs Act and other allied enactments.
    • Prevention of smuggling including interdiction of narcotics drug trafficking.
    International Passenger clearance.

  • Customs Duty

    In this article, we will discuss Customs Duty (Definition). So, let’s get started.

    Customs Duty

    Customs duty is a tax imposed on imports and exports of goods.

    Customs duty is on import into India and export out of India. As per ancient custom, a merchant entering a kingdom with his goods had to make a suitable gift to the King. In the course of time, this ‘custom’ was formalised into ‘Customs Duty’. This is collected on imports (and occasionally on exports too). The word ‘Customary’ is derived from ‘customs’, which indicates that it is a very old tax. Taxes on goods were levied on various goods right from the Veda period. Customs Duty as we understand today has its origin in British period. British established its first Board of Revenue in 1786 at Calcutta. New Board of Trade was established in 1808. A uniform Tariff Act was introduced in 1859 all over India. General rate of import duty was 10%, which was reduced to 7.5% in 1864. Customs duty in India is linked with
    history of textile industry. British manufacturers wanted to export their products to India and due to their pressure, duty on coarser varieties of cotton goods was abolished in 1877. In the meanwhile, Sea Customs Act was passed in 1878. In 1882, all import duties were abolished, but re-introduced in 1894 at general rate of 5%. Indian Tariff Act was passed in 1894. Import duty on cotton goods @ 5% was introduced in 1894. At the same time, excise duty on Indian cotton goods was imposed, which was bitterly resented in India and it was finally abolished in 1925. General rate of customs duty was later increased to 7.5%. Land Customs Act was passed in 1924. Air Customs was covered by making some rules under Indian Aircraft Act, 1911. After independence, manufacturing industry grew and trade expanded. Customs Act, 1962 was passed to consolidate Sea Customs Act, Land Customs Act and provisions for air customs.

  • English (Practice Set-09)

    English (Practice Set-09)

    Directions (Q. Nos. 1-2) Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. It a sentence is free from error ‘No error.

    1. Kalidas is (n)/ a Shakespeare (b)/the worse in becomes. (c)/ No error (d)

    2. I want to get (a)/ a M.A. degree (b)/from a reputed university located in India. (c)/ No error (d)

    3. A part of the sentence is underlined. Choose the correct alternative which should be put in place underlined part Where have you first mct your husband? (a) had you first met (b) did you first met (c) did you first meet (d) No improvement

    4. Fill in the blank. Making pies and cakes ……. Mrs. Reddy’s specialty.
    (a) is
    (b) has
    (c) were
    (d) are

    Directions (Q. Nos. 5-9) In the following passage some of the words have been left. Try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. When I go into stranger’s library I …(5)… round bookshelves. This is to know the type of person he is and I feel that I know the … (6)… to his mind. A house without books is a …(7)… house, no matter how the carpets are. These only tell you whether he …(8)… a money, but the books tell you whether he has a mind as well. It is not a …(9)… of money that we do not buy books.

    5. (a) Wonder
    (b) run
    (c) look
    (d) wander

    6. (a) secrey
    (b) mystery
    (c) key
    (d) solution

    7. (a) characterless
    (b) bleak
    (c) unlucky
    (d) bad

    8. (a) had
    (b) has
    (c) have
    (d) has had

    9. (a) reason
    (b) question
    (c) issue
    (d) cause

    10. Selected the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct.
    Mother told me that I should listen to her first and then do anything as I pleased.
    (a) Mother said to me, “I should listen to me first and then do anything I please.”
    (b) Mother said to me, “He should listen to her first and then do anything he pleases.”
    (c) Mother said to me, “You should listen to me first and then do anything I pleased.
    (d) Mother said to me, “You should listen to me first and then do anything as you please.”

    11. Choose the correct alternative in place of underline word/sentence.
    In case if it rains, I shall not visit you.
    (a) If for
    (b) In case of
    (c) If
    (d) No improvement

    12. Choose the proper sequence.
    (a) Our school had won match ifonly we have concentrated.
    (b) Our school would have won the match if only we would have concentrated.
    (c) Our school would have won the match if only we had concentrated
    (d) Our school had won the match if only we would have concentrated.

    13. Choose the correct preposition.
    Mumbai is famous because of its textiles.
    (a) No improvement
    (b) for
    (c) at
    (d) in

    14. Choose the correct antonym for the given word.
    Ostentation
    (a) innocence
    (b) purity
    (c) simplicity
    (d) limited

    Directions (Q. Nos. 15-16) Identify correct spelt word.
    15. (a) Valetudeinarian
    (b) valeutidinarian
    (c) Valetudinarian
    (d) Valetudenarian

    16. (a) Obnoxious
    (b) Obnoxcious
    (c) Obnaoxious
    (d) Obnoxous


    17. Fill up with conjunction.
    Ramu has to work ……….. his father had died when he
    was five years old
    (a) for
    (b) since
    (c) because
    (d) as

    18. Out of the four alternative, choose the one which can be
    substituted for the given words/sentence.
    One of the time-tested ways of remembering a series of
    items
    (a) Recollection
    (b) Schematizing
    (c) Mnemonic
    (d) Ingenuity

    19. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of
    the Idiom/Phrase.
    You scratch back. I’ll scratch yours.
    (a) Mutual favour
    (b) Mutual understanding
    (c) mutual respect
    (d) Mutual disliking

    20. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in
    Active Voice.
    Our parents have taught us to behave properly.
    (a) We have been taught to behave properly by our parents.
    (b) We were taught how not to behave properly by our
    parents.
    (c) Our parents taught us how to behave properly.
    (d) Our parents have teaching us how to behave properly.

    21. Choose the correct alternative in place of underline
    words/sentence.
    People who enjoy these kind of activities can be very useful for your company.
    (a) these kind of activity
    (b) these of kind activity
    (c) these kinds of activities
    (d) the kind of activities like these


    22. Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of where have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence there are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d) . You are required to re-arrange the jumbled of
    Parts the sentence and select the proper sequence.
    The difference and development on the other affects
    P
    in the relationship between death and birth-rates on theone hand
    Q
    but the age structure of the population
    R
    not just the rate of population growth
    S
    Which one of the following sequences is correct?
    (a) S R Q P
    (b) Q P S R
    (c) S P Q R
    (d) Q R S P

    23. Find the errors and justify your answers. Write ‘No error
    if you find no error.
    He asked (a) that how long (b)/I would be absent. (c)/
    No error (d)

    24. Choose the correct synonym for the given word.
    LIMITS
    (a) Caps
    (b) Rims
    (c) Frames
    (d) Frontiers

    25. Fill in the blank it to the complete sentence.
    The appearance of the city ……. day by day.
    (a) had changed
    (b) could change
    (c) Changed
    (d) is changing

    Answersheet 1. (b) 2. (B) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. ( a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21 (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)